God does not follow the first principle of morality. Why not?

[Darkstar]

Again it does not work because The God of the bible does not offer all people the omnibenevolence epiricus' gods appearently did.

So you admit Yahweh is capable of evil and, in fact, employs it. Understood.

Is Omnipotence the only omni aspect of god being repersented in the supposed paradox?

immediately before the other omni aspects are shown...

It's funny how the bible does not use the word you used

It's funny how the exact word used in the bible is at the whim of the translator. Did you miss the 'Lexicon Switcheroo' thread?

and I think it to be odd you do not define the word.

Ever heard of a dictionary?

This is a streach even for a sunday schooler. Before I proceed let me see you say you believe Omniscients to be limited to God having the ablity to simply 'see all things.' That for you the doctrine of Omniscients does not include any other 'all knowing aspects.'

So...god doesn't know everything? Are you saying that there are things god does not know?

And againd I see you left out omni benevolence even though your whole arguement depends on it.. Wonder why that is.

"Then he is malevolent"