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God does not follow the first principle of morality. Why not?
#46
RE: God does not follow the first principle of morality. Why not?
(October 11, 2012 at 8:38 pm)System of Solace Wrote: BULLSHIT! Malachi 3:6
King James Version (KJV)
6 For I am the Lord, I change not; therefore ye sons of Jacob are not consumed.
What makes you think that God's position on the list of acts you posted sides with your understanding of them??

If God does not Change, then How is it He can condone these acts in one book/instance and condemn them the next? Unless! The acts themselves have no interinsically moral value at all. They are simply good or bad when God says they are good or bad. Meaning that the only time raping and murdering is bad is when we do it on our own/without a command from God. And are acceptable when He says they are. Again as it is we in this age as Christians nor Jews have any commands to rape murder or anything else on your list. Meaning all instances of the sins you mentioned can be rightfully judged as sin.

Quote:And why does God suddenly change his mind? It's because man created God in his image.
Big Grin Ah no. As I have pointed out many many times in the soceity/times the bible was written it was very counter culture in every aspect. (Do you really need examples and explainations?) "We" believers have always been persecuted for being outside of the culture in what we believe.

Quote: That's why as we progress, more and more of the bible becomes considered Christian dogma.
Big Grin ah, no. not even close. As we progress the 'christian dogma' moves further and further from the bible. Prosperity doctrines, the whole sale justification of sin rather than santification of sin. and the list goes on.

Quote:We've strayed from the point, honestly. I don't really have to prove he is omnibenevolent,
Yes you do you if you whole arguement is that God is malevolent. Because if there isn't a biblical promise that God is supposed to love and care for everyone like you thought/think He is supposed to then lableing God malevolent is meaningless. Do you honestly not see that? or Do you believe your own hype, and really think I failed to defend my thread on this topic the first time around? Your precious paradox fails if there is not a declaration of omni benevolence here. Again are you ignorant here or just obstinate?

Quote: but I can prove he is malevolent when you look at all the suffering in the world.
Jerkoff
So what? God put us in Charge of this realm this world at the fall of Man. If there is suffering it is because We/YOU allow it!

Quote:How can you justify this suffering with the "They have chosen not to accept Jesus" when some have never heard that name uttered before?
Seriously? How can you say you hate God if you truly know nothing of Him?

Christians are Called to suffer. Meaning If you are a Christian expect to suffer in this life. If His own Son was not spared suffering from this world then why would we expect not to suffer? Furthermore why would someone who does not know Christ be in a better position to not suffer?

We do not trade worship for a better life. That is what I was talking about earilier when I mentioned a prosperity doctrine, and how Christianity is moving away from the bible.
Quote:
Quote:And this means God is omni benevolent how?


Doesn't. It means the Vatican thinks he is.
[/quote]

So let me make sure I understand your arguement. you quoting that creed, Doesn't really mean God is omni benevolent as it has nothing to do with the bible. It just means that the Vatican believes that God is omni Benevolent... Even though the bible say nothing of the sort. Is that your arguement in a nut shell?

(October 11, 2012 at 8:45 pm)Ryantology Wrote: Where did God ever say it was bad to commit rape,
We are subject to the state. If the state says no rape torture genocide then we must follow those rules.
Wink
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Messages In This Thread
RE: God does not follow the first principle of morality. Why not? - by Drich - October 11, 2012 at 9:36 pm

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