Why Yahweh? (Or Allah, or Zeus, etc.)

[John V]

It basically said that because people like Moses were given the power to perform miracles in the name of god, then Jesus's miracles do not prove his divinity any more than the parting of the red sea proves Moses's. Jesus was not the only person to be raised from the dead on the day of his ressurection, so this too does not show that he is divine.

I agree. I haven't said that miracles are necessarily evidence of divinity. I said they're evidence supporting extraordinary claims. As these others didn't claim divinity, you're correct, their miracles/raising doesn't prove divinity.

I'm not saying that they are making a good case for miracles actually occuring; I'm just saying that Christianity isn't necessarily making a better one.

I've shown a difference: Christianity includes miracles of Jesus and the apostles in its earliest documents. Islam's earliest documents denied such miracles, and miracles were only attributed to Muhammed over time.

Allaah The Almighty supported His Prophets with miracles, which are extraordinary events that are usually of the same nature that the people of that particular prophet excelled at. For instance, the people of Prophet Moosa excelled at magic, so the miracle of Prophet Moosa was that he threw his staff and it turned to a serpent. Likewise, the people of Prophet ‘Eesa excelled at medicine, so Prophet ‘Eesa cured the blind and the leper, and gave life to the dead by the permission of Allaah The Almighty. The Arabs excelled at poetry and rhetoric and therefore Allaah The Almighty sent them the Quran and it was a miracle that they were not even able to compose one Soorah (Chapter) like it.

Here, the miracles of pre-Muhammad prophets are briefly explained.
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Yes, Moosa being Moses and Eesa being Jesus. They admit that Moses and Jesus performed miracles, and Muhammed wrote a book.

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You're probably aware that the Gospels are evidence of a story being exaggerated. Jesus is not god in the Synoptics but then in John, the last Gospel written, all of a sudden he is "one with the Father". How do the Synoptics miss out on such a fundamental detail that is the basis of Christianity?

John stressed Jesus divinity more than the Synoptics, but it's not absent from the Synoptics.

Matthew 11
27 All things have been delivered to Me by My Father, and no one knows the Son except the Father. Nor does anyone know the Father except the Son, and the one to whom the Son wills to reveal Him.

Luke 10
22 All things have been delivered to Me by My Father, and no one knows who the Son is except the Father, and who the Father is except the Son, and the one to whom the Son wills to reveal Him.”

John 10
15 As the Father knows Me, even so I know the Father; and I lay down My life for the sheep.