RE: How Christians and there god sound to me.
November 27, 2012 at 12:54 pm
(This post was last modified: November 27, 2012 at 12:58 pm by The Grand Nudger.)
(November 27, 2012 at 12:48 pm)CliveStaples Wrote: But God's will for you is the explanation for believers. That is, if you're a Christian/God-follower, God wanting you to do X is explanatory for why it is good to do X.Yes, in exactly the same way that "waffles" is my explanation for the existence of the universe. That's precisely the problem Clive. It's a bare assertion followed up with circular reasoning. It matters very little whether we invoke our own understanding or gods - something more is required in either case.
Quote:I don't understand your question, your phrasing is too ambiguous. You want me to account for why I have a particular understanding about premarital sex? Or why I have a particular understanding about God's will with regard to premarital sex? Or why God has a particular understanding of premarital sex?No, not at all, I want you to explain to me why your understanding of gods will doesn't fall to the same comment about not "having it all figured out". Explain to me how your reference to the will of a god doesn't become a self defeating statement if we set it right next to your interpretation of this proverb.
Quote:It's the problem of communicating with language at all, isn't it? Different people might need it explained in different ways. Which is why there's an entire Bible to read in order to more fully understand God's nature/will/plan/whathaveyou. You're asking why proverbs--essentially, Hebrew "wisdom cliches"--aren't pithy when translated to English? Really?It's a problem for us, as human beings, sure, but why is it a problem for god? And no, that's not what I'm asking at all, I expect there to be ambiguity and difficulty in tranlation (largely because I don't think a god was even remotely involved in any of it, least of all proverbs), I'm asking why you felt the need to translate one english expression into another, and whether or not you can then claim the authority of the first as the authority of the second. Proverbs says -such and such-...You, Clive...say something else. Are you deferring to proverbs here or your own understanding? Again...how is this not a self defeating statement when we consider it alongside the very interpretation of that proverb you decided to offer us?
(and again, it's still an empty statement regardless - no reason has been given as to why we would side with one or the other)
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