(January 11, 2013 at 10:40 am)Drich Wrote: This is known as begging the question. Care to rephrase?
Well, okay: How do you justify the contradiction between the idea that the old testament somehow no longer applies, and the insistence within the text that not a word of god's law will be altered? Beyond this, how would you explain the idea of an inerrant book of laws being made obsolete or selectively read from? You're clearly personally fine with it, I guess I'm wondering how you reached that point, because to me it seems like a point of cognitive dissonance, given that your god is supposed to be perfect: why would his laws change and, if they have, what does that say about his morality?
"YOU take the hard look in the mirror. You are everything that is wrong with this world. The only thing important to you, is you." - ronedee
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Want to see more of my writing? Check out my (safe for work!) site, Unprotected Sects!