(January 18, 2013 at 9:49 pm)catfish Wrote: Surtr provided the evidence. It's up to you to decide if "eternal" is the correct translation of aeonian.
No no, that's what I'm saying! Surtr did provide evidence, and you have not! You've just insisted that you are right, without giving reasons why!
Quote:Please don't use circular reason like he did. If your definition uses an example from the Bible, then you're using the Bible to support the Biblical translation.
Except his definition didn't use an example from the bible. It just used a phrase that has a religious connotation- "eternal hellfire" or somesuch. It also had a number of other examples, which, if we're keeping score, puts it at about one hundred percent more credibility than your completely baseless assertion to the contrary.
I dunno, maybe you just don't know what circular reasoning is.
Oh, and still waiting on that evidence that your position is the correct one.
"YOU take the hard look in the mirror. You are everything that is wrong with this world. The only thing important to you, is you." - ronedee
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Want to see more of my writing? Check out my (safe for work!) site, Unprotected Sects!
