(November 3, 2009 at 7:13 pm)fr0d0 Wrote: You're basing a lot on a simple understanding of the word "I". Why wouldn't Isaiah in addressing King Ahaz use the first person in naming Jesus by his function as was the tradition??
There is absolutely no indication that any prophet was attempting to name a baby Jesus by his function. There is an indication that someone was trying to foretell the birth of a child and even reveal the name of that newborn baby "Immanuel." Period.
If the prophet had meant to foretell the birth of Jesus he would have said something like, "The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and they will call him Jesus but it would be more appropriate if he were called Immanuel, which means, God with us."
Of course, he didn't say that.
So, we only have Christianity's word that he was talking about a baby Jesus instead of a baby Immanuel. And Christians, applying such apologetics could just as easily qualify Jack or George or Ralph or anyone else as their Immanuel. If that is the character of this so-called prophecy, that it could pertain to anyone, it's basically worthless as a prophecy.
And on another note, scholars know perfectly well this scripture is not intended as a prophecy of a coming messiah. You might avail yourself of this website. http://www.messiahtruth.com/is714a.html
