(November 3, 2009 at 8:35 pm)theblindferrengi Wrote:(November 3, 2009 at 7:13 pm)fr0d0 Wrote: You're basing a lot on a simple understanding of the word "I". Why wouldn't Isaiah in addressing King Ahaz use the first person in naming Jesus by his function as was the tradition??
He means by "I" that it is a capital letter, and therefore a proper noun, like a name, not he was referring to himself in first person.
Yeah I know that - it's what I was referring to.
I stand by my original point. I read far wider than the site you refer to on the issue and frankly your and their reasoning is weak.
