RE: Has anyone ever found a way to reconsile being Gay/Bi/Lesbien and being a Christian?
February 17, 2013 at 4:39 pm
(This post was last modified: February 17, 2013 at 4:44 pm by Drich.)
(February 17, 2013 at 2:19 pm)Ryantology Wrote: [quote='Drich' pid='402754' dateline='1361124391']So in your world, experience and in depth study, and even in some cases translation of certain passages from the orginal texts is consider fraudulent behavior?
Quote:No. You are qualified to tell me what a passage said in the Bible. You are not qualified to tell me that your interpretation of that passage is superior to mine.i never said anything about my interpretation being superior. Because superior is a term that can mean anything depending on how you wish to interpret the passage. I have only ever represented that my interpretation would be complete and contextual. If you think putting something in a complete context is 'superior' to what your doing, then that is your business.
Quote:I've already explained what I think it means, several times in this thread and others, and whether it's good or bad is not relevant to me.Actually you have not done anything accept repeatedly point to the same verse over and over again. When I ask you what you think it means you change the subject. This is where the conversation ends. I will not participate in any other requests until you make the effort I have asked you to make here.
Because everything else you are asking completely hinges on how you want to view a given passage. Understand I do not deny this passage nor am I over looking it. You seem to think it is a bad thing and I simply want to know why.
Again until you take the time to explain your self, you have ended this conversation.
(February 17, 2013 at 4:27 pm)Question Mark Wrote: Ahh, I think we might have had a small miscommunication here, and I see why you said what you said, I think. What I meant by asking for an explanation, is for you to point out in what way my representation of homosexuality in the bible is incorrect. I've read every passage I can find regarding sexual "deviances", and I can find nothing of an explanation as to why they're bad, it just states that they are.You are not wrong. All 'acts' have no intrinsic moral value in God's economy. Acts are only ever considered sinful or righteous because God assigns them their titles. The acts themselves are meaningless.
From this I deduce that the only reason they're bad is because your god says so, and that by definition is law handed down by arbitration. Am I wrong? If so, how?
(February 17, 2013 at 4:27 pm)Question Mark Wrote: Ahh, I think we might have had a small miscommunication here, and I see why you said what you said, I think. What I meant by asking for an explanation, is for you to point out in what way my representation of homosexuality in the bible is incorrect. I've read every passage I can find regarding sexual "deviances", and I can find nothing of an explanation as to why they're bad, it just states that they are.You are not wrong. All 'acts' have no intrinsic moral value in God's economy. Acts are only ever considered sinful or righteous because God assigns them their titles. The acts themselves are meaningless.
From this I deduce that the only reason they're bad is because your god says so, and that by definition is law handed down by arbitration. Am I wrong? If so, how?
