If the verses stated, "I haven't provided miracles now but I will later" - I would hardly have a problem with them. But even that, Moses showed the Pharaoh miracles right as soon as he asked for one.
Why delay miracles? If you going to provide proof, why not right away?
17:59 states the only reason why God didn't send miracles (up to that point per your understanding), is that ancients rejected them. Those before them rejected them. How does this reasoning make sense?
We will talk about the other verses after.
Why delay miracles? If you going to provide proof, why not right away?
17:59 states the only reason why God didn't send miracles (up to that point per your understanding), is that ancients rejected them. Those before them rejected them. How does this reasoning make sense?
We will talk about the other verses after.