Why is belief in a higher power required?

[Statler Waldorf]

I still can't understand why any human being could observe the behavior of statler wordork and conclude there could still exist some small void in the solid sphere of bone that makes up his puppet head with which he could accommodate some small degree of enlightenment.

I welcome this sort of post, it’s obvious you only resort to personal attacks because you fear my abilities and will not try your hand at actual debate. Thank you, my child

As you are making the positive claim, it is up to you to prove it.

The claim, “you are making the positive claim, it is up to you to prove it” is itself a positive claim, so first you must prove this claim before I will accept it as valid. Please follow your own rules.

To have the viewpoint that something is not there when there is zero evidence that it is, is not irrational.

I agree, it’s not irrational.

What makes you certain you can trust your senses if God exists? There are tons of people who come to very different answers using the same methods you use.

I am the creation of a rational God who desires for me to learn about Him through His revealed word and His creation, therefore I can trust my senses enough to learn about His world and His word. You have no justification for trusting your senses because you believe we live in a Universe that is nothing more than matter.

Appealing to solipsism again.

So? That’s not fallacious. Pointing out that you have to use circular arguments in order to justify your belief that your senses are reliable is completely valid.

Belief in things nobody can sense or justify without circular reasoning or appealing to solipsism is a good indication that they are not.

So you’re not in your right mind because you believe your senses are reliable and yet you cannot prove they are without using circularity?

It must not do much to glorify him if he, himself, has so many problems with what he made.

I see no problems with what He has made.

Then, where do you get off justifying your beliefs based on 'original' scripture when you have no idea what the originals actually said?

But we do know what the originals said, so that question is based on a false premise.

Acting in malice. Doing things for the sheer thrill of watching humans suffer. That is the only interpretation available to one who interprets scripture literally.

Why is that the correct definition of evil? Because you say so?