Four questions for Christians

[Ryantology]

Nowhere in the OT did God justify making slaves of neutral peoples, especially ones that had come across their borders seeking refuge.

If slavery is okay for certain people and not others, it is inconsistent.

Also note that the crime Egypt was punished for in the Tenth Plague was the killing of the Israelite babies. The executors of this offense were punished for allowing Israelite children to be killed by having their very own children killed. Therefore, they were punished exactly as they had been offended.

Killing babies is not a crime in God's eyes; he orders his soldiers to execute infant Amalekites. More inconsistency.

Your suggestion is arbitrary judgement. God cannot say that he will use his own justice system, because that would be unfair to the people being judged. These people would ask why the judge is being unfair, and the judge would say that the justice system he implements is infinitely more fair than anything you could imagine. The only reason that you don't think so is because of your imperfect human minds, also you were born in the wrong country at the wrong time period.

What, then, is the point of God having his own laws if he is going to judge others according to their own? And, where is the evidence for your assertion that he acts according to local laws? This is the first I've heard of this concept. Reeks of moral relativism, in fact.

Imagine God spoke to us today and told us that he will judge child-killing by killing children in the exact same way that the dead child was killed, and then insist that he is being just because the ancients had it right and we have deviated from 'the true path of righteousness'. That is your proposition.

Would you like to live in a society where every first born child in your nation was killed because some soldiers of your country committed this atrocity?