I have a question about noah's flood.

[ThomM]

If god is all knowing, then how come he doesn't seem to know that the flood will not accomplish his goal of eliminating sin?
If he did know that it would not work then why did he kill everyone anyway, including the new born babies, to young to sin, which by his own definition he murdered?
For the bible says

Deuteronomy 24:16 ESV

“Fathers shall not be put to death because of their children, nor shall children be put to death because of their fathers. Each one shall be put to death for his own sin.

And also here in the Ten Commandments

Exodus 20:13 NIV




You shall not murder.

I have posted this before

However - the most basic problem with the flood of Noah is that it NEVER happened

THERE is no basis to claim a flood of that magnitude happened on earth during the time humans have lived on earth - or for that matter - 2294 BCE - as is noted by the Jewish Calendar.

The problem is that a column of water as high as claimed would have destroyed EVERY man made object due to water pressure. And the Great Pyramid of Egypt - which was built 300 years or so before that shows NO water damage =- much less total destruction that would have happened.

And of course - the reason WHY - is because we have NO evidence that the jewish nation existed at that time either - since we have no evidence of a nation called Israel until about closer to 1000 BCE.

Once you investigate it - you realize that much of the old testament is NOTHING MORE than MYTH and LEGEND made up by a group of wandering goat herders in the middle east.

THere is also not a single mention of the christ - in ANY document that we have that can be dated to the supposed time of the christ. THERE are so many things about these stories that cannot be true - as to render them worthless.