RE: Why is Kant's practical reason for God wrong?
October 24, 2013 at 2:50 pm
(This post was last modified: October 24, 2013 at 3:00 pm by MindForgedManacle.)
I was talking to a professional philosopher on Twitter, and she said that from my question about "whether or not there was a contradiction between Kant's prohibition on metaphysics and moral views" that she would say no.
And given she can understand Kant and I really...can't (been saving that one!), I would tend to defer to her knowledge until I can.
If you're talking about Kant's idea that "ought implies can", that's in error because to say something is an ought is only to say that if it can be done it should be done. It doesn't address whether or not it actually can be done.
And given she can understand Kant and I really...can't (been saving that one!), I would tend to defer to her knowledge until I can.
(October 23, 2013 at 8:27 pm)filambee Wrote: So are you saying that any assumption that humanity can or cannot achieve a level of the "highest good" is speculative reasoning? Could thinking that humanity cannot achieve this level be inductive reasoning instead based on the history of humanity?
If you're talking about Kant's idea that "ought implies can", that's in error because to say something is an ought is only to say that if it can be done it should be done. It doesn't address whether or not it actually can be done.
