(October 31, 2013 at 9:18 am)Drich Wrote:(October 29, 2013 at 9:39 am)max-greece Wrote: "That's one of the points I am making here. If the actions of a practicing witch can be justified in her/his death under our laws of self defense, how much more free would those laws be 300 years ago?"
Could you run that one by me again? - I'm really struggling to understand what you are trying to say.
(practising and defence - just for reference)
If the a case for self defense can be made for the death of a witch today. Then how is justification for killing a witch questioned when it was done 300 years ago in every single case?
If you take away the magic, you still have one person or a group of people tormenting and oppressing another.
Today, in the developed world at least, you would have to prove it beyond a reasonable doubt. You should have had to prove it 300 years ago, too.
