RE: Man's morality
December 5, 2013 at 1:55 pm
(This post was last modified: December 5, 2013 at 2:27 pm by Drich.)
(December 5, 2013 at 12:19 pm)apophenia Wrote:
"If the rule you followed brought you to this, of what use was the rule?"
~ Anton Chigurh
20 because no one can be made right with God by following the law. The law only shows us our sin.
~The Apstole Paul Romans 3
(December 5, 2013 at 12:33 pm)MindForgedManacle Wrote: Does God do anything?yes
Quote:If so, what directs the way God does in fact act?According to His expressed will.
Quote: Clearly, it's going to be based on what God thinks is good.no.Actually it is not a yes or no matter. Because what is 'good' Describes what God does. Being the alpha and Omega means He is the standard in which all things are measured. That means there is not a standard in which to measure God against that means anything other than What He Himself does.
Quote:That is morality, there is no escaping it, save for not understanding what language is, because that's the concept that the word 'morality' refers to.ah, no. God's 'Morality' is based off of His unchanging Will for us. Which means God's 'morality' is different from yours because yours changes.
Quote:God and you appealing to God's nature as being what goodness is, is just a value judgement. Assuming God exists (you haven't even tried to do that as far as I know), why does God think himself to be good?God is the defination of 'good' because This is His creation and He set the standard.
Quote:Further, the fact that God apparently views himself to be the only is irrelevant to what is actually good,Ah, i see your problem. Please answer my questions. If God is not an absolute standard of good, then what is that standard? Standard as being defined as: something set up and established by authority as a rule for the measure of quantity, weight, extent, value, or quality.
For in order to judge something good or not good one must have a system of rule or measure to weigh the variable against. So again what standard can one use to judge God?
Now keep in mind a standard is meaningless unles those who use it have the ablity to stand behind it and enforce it.. So again how can you without an enfoceable standard determine whether or not God is good or bad?
(December 5, 2013 at 1:19 pm)Tonus Wrote: Yes. I am pointing out a significant flaw in the one you used.That is not the purpose of an analogy.
So your answer should be no. You do not understand the purpose of an analogy. Which disqualifies you from trying to dismiss what you do not understand.
Drich Wrote:Using a parent/Child analogy in this instance compares God's Authority to dictate rules to his children that may not apply to Himself. The content of the rules and how they apply to our social structure is not being examined, because it does not apply unless one first accepts the authority of God.
Quote:But neither exists in a vacuum. If you are going to make the comparison, I think it bears noting where it breaks down.The analogy stands, because one can rightly assume if you do not know how or why an analogy is used you will not be able to properly identify if it viable or not. Therefore you are not in a position to tell me where it "breaks down."
Drich Wrote:what are you talking about? Have you never read the parable of the prodigal son?
Quote:The prodigal son could have formed an army, marched to his father's home and taken it by force, killing any who barred his path, including his father. Humans cannot do this to god.

When adults talk we try and stay on topic and with in the confines of an established story and stay on point so as to not seem overwhelmed or foolish.
Quote:A flawed concept remains flawed regardless of who originates it.As we have already established you are not in a position to identify flaws.
Drich Wrote:Not by our deeds, which is why Christ died. Because He died and we accept why He died we can take on the 'perfection' of Christ. When I stand before God my sin and short commings are not seen. Chirst's works are seen in place of mine. Therefore I become perfect as He is perfect to the Father.
Quote:When Jesus said those words (Matthew 5:48) he was specifically referring to individual thoughts and deeds (Matthew 5:1-47). I don't see a context in which he would have been referring to his ransom sacrifice..... and the indivisual thoughts and deed as Per Chirst in Mat 5:17-20 Cover the Whole Law which covers the Whole of the Human experience.
Quote:I would hope not, considering how he treats his children!again not all are His children
Quote:Oh. So he's either the loving father or the abusive step-father? That's almost a slight improvement, I suppose.No. one is a Child of God or lost to God. Again pointing back to the prodigal son, the Son dis owns his father which means it makes him a stranger.
If you are not a Child of God then you have no affiliation with Him.
Jesus illustrated with the parable of wheat and weeds. The wheat and weeds/tares grow together. (Tares look like wheat but do not produce an ediable grain) Durning the Harvest (judgement) the wheat will be seperated from the tares and taken into the store house while the tares/weeds will be thrown into the fire. Christ tells several stories like this one seperating those who belong to God and those who do not.
again not all are God's Children and therefore will not benefit from Him.
Quote:God massacred a lot of people in the Bible,So?
Quote:and it does not appear as if all (or even most) of them were seeking to harm his children.lol examples?
Quote:Some were simply defending themselves from invasion by those children, and not the other way around. .like?