Biblical illiteracy

[orangebox21]

As to the question of original sin and/or the sins of the father passing to the son. The answer is yes and no based upon the circumstance. The apparent condradiction has to do with the distinction between a "sinfull nature" and the "specific sins of a person" (in this case that person being a father). In the case of Deuteronomy 24:16 ("Fathers shall not be put to death for their sons, nor shall sons be put to death for their fathers; everyone shall be put to death for his own sin.") if a father were to commit murder his son should not be put to death for his fathers sin of murder, the son should only be put to death for his own sin. This differs from children inheriting a "sinful nature" from their father. For example Romans 5:12 ( Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned). Sinfull nature passes from father to children, punishment for specific sins do not. For further reading, http://carm.org/bible-difficulties/genes...ers-or-not