RE: The dangers of faith
January 8, 2014 at 2:35 am
(This post was last modified: January 8, 2014 at 2:40 am by Angrboda.)
(January 7, 2014 at 2:02 am)Godschild Wrote:(color and emphasis added)(January 6, 2014 at 1:52 pm)rasetsu Wrote:(January 6, 2014 at 5:46 am)Godschild Wrote: Actually I saw it as sad, when people have the Bible and then put their meaning to it, it will always cost them. By the way Jacob(smooth) do you really think God should comfort the foolish, seems in the story you posted He doesn't.Yeah, as if you don't do the same thing all the fucking time.
"But my meanings I get out of it are the real ones!"
And you would know that how exactly?
Please show me when I've done what you have accused me of doing, you're the prosecutor so bring your proof.
You are trying to put a baited question in my mouth and then expect me to answer it, you're stupider than I thought.
Ask and you shall receive:
(July 29, 2013 at 5:15 pm)Godschild Wrote:(emphasis mine)(July 29, 2013 at 12:06 pm)BadWriterSparty Wrote: I don't know the answer, which is why I ask it. So your answer is no? Why don't you believe in them?
The book of Mormon was written by a conman, well know for his dishonesty. There is no historical records to back up any of the book. It is also called an addition to the Bible, the Bible states there shall be no additions. It also is in conflict with the Bible.
This turns out to be your interpretation of a passage in John which exegesis shows to be an incorrect interpretation. (see below)
(July 30, 2013 at 2:01 pm)rasetsu Wrote:(color and emphasis added)(July 30, 2013 at 1:17 am)Godschild Wrote: How do you know when the Book of John was written. How do you know when the Book of Revelation was written, no originals so an exact dating is impossible at this time. What prophets and exactly what did they think?
. . . .
Anyway, this is rather moot, anyway, because the author of Revelations didn't specifically refer to "the bible," as the bible did not exist at that time. I must confess to being ignorant of Koine Greek, but even though it's not clear what the author is referring to in the text, because the bible didn't exist at the time Revelations was written, he most likely is referring to something else. (And no, it doesn't matter if God is the author of those words; the reference is still uncertain.)
Wikipedia Wrote:The English word Bible is from the Latin biblia, from the same word in Medieval Latin and Late Latin and ultimately from Koine Greek τὰ βιβλία ta biblia "the books" (singular βιβλίον biblion).
Medieval Latin biblia is short for biblia sacra "holy book", while biblia in Greek and Late Latin is neuter plural (gen. bibliorum). It gradually came to be regarded as a feminine singular noun (biblia, gen. bibliae) in medieval Latin, and so the word was loaned as a singular into the vernaculars of Western Europe. Latin biblia sacra "holy books" translates Greek τὰ βιβλία τὰ ἅγια ta biblia ta hagia, "the holy books".
The word βιβλίον itself had the literal meaning of "paper" or "scroll" and came to be used as the ordinary word for "book". It is the diminutive of βύβλος bublos, "Egyptian papyrus", possibly so called from the name of the Phoenician sea port Byblos (also known as Gebal) from whence Egyptian papyrus was exported to Greece. The Greek ta biblia (lit. "little papyrus books") was "an expression Hellenistic Jews used to describe their sacred books (the Septuagint).
The word in the interlinear bible I'm looking at is βιβλίου, bibliou, and appears to be singular, likely referring to the book of Revelation itself. Maybe you or Drich can weigh in and explain the finer points of Koine Greek to those of us like myself who are ignorant of such things.
Your move, ex-lax.