(March 30, 2010 at 4:27 pm)fr0d0 Wrote: Not semantics - I thought a lot about my reaction to the words, and that's how I honestly took it.It clearly is semantics. You think that "directly responsible" means the person committed the crime, I say it is a far looser term than that.
Going by your definition, sure, I think what Hitchens said is sensationalist. However, knowing Hitchens, I don't think he believes that the Pope actually abused children, hence why I argued that he is using a looser definition of the term. I've seen Hitchens speak about child abuse in the Catholic church before, and I've never seen him claim that the Pope did the abuse. What I have seen (time and time again) is him claim that the Pope is partly responsible, and should apologise and see that those responsible are brought to justice.
So, do you accept that your claim is possibly not what Hitchens meant, and that he was using a looser meaning of the phrase?
