Does it make sense to speak of "Universal Consciousness" or "Universal Intelligence"?

[pocaracas]

Sorry for the interruption, Chas...

Not special pleading. The evidence supports minds existing in brains, and one mind to one brain. That is why your comparison fails.

You keep dismissing specific candidates for the supervenience of mind, because you have to. It's a "mind of the gaps" argument-- you have no idea what it is about the brain that causes the existence of qualia, but you insist that there is evidence it can only be in the brain.

My argument is simple, and you've steadfastly avoided it. GIVEN THAT the brains of others actually experience qualia, rather than just seeming to, I argue:
1) The brain has many properties.
2) Qualia supervene on some or all of these properties.
3) Some of these properties are unique to the brain, and some are universal.
4) It is not known on which of these properties qualia supervene.
5) It is therefore not known whether qualia are unique to the brain or universal.

What do you mean by "universal", here?

Stop hiding behind appeals to evidence and address the argument, if you can. Either that, or provide this "evidence" for brain:mind 1:1 relationship that you keep referring to, and watch it torn to pieces.

There's no absolute proof that there's a brain:mind 1:1 relationship, but the existing evidence sure points that way:

- Influence of drugs on cognitive processes (not restricted to humans!)

- Personality shift upon brain damage (http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lobotomy, http://www.psychologytoday.com/blog/prof...nge-part-i, http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Phineas_Gage)