Challenge regarding Christian morality

[rexbeccarox]

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Explain please.

That law is for the protection of the girl and her child.

The law regarding rape of a betrothed girl is thus:

“But if in the open country a man meets a young woman who is betrothed, and the man seizes her and lies with her, then only the man who lay with her shall die. 26But you shall do nothing to the young woman; she has committed no offense punishable by death. For this case is like that of a man attacking and murdering his neighbor, 27because he met her in the open country, and though the betrothed young woman cried for help there was no one to rescue her."

But for an unmarried girl it is this:

“If a man meets a virgin who is not betrothed, and seizes her and lies with her, and they are found, 29then the man who lay with her shall give to the father of the young woman fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife, because he has violated her. He may not divorce her all his days."

We see, the man is only allowed to live, so that the girl and her offspring do not suffer more, or die. Instead his punishment is to support her unto his death. In those days, a unmarried girl with child was effectively a death sentence, she would not have been able to get another man to work and support her and her family, so the rapist must do it. It made the best of a bad situation, and was a law formed to protect the victims or rape.

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"a law formed to protect the victims of rape"

Couldn't god have... I dunno... made the rapist not rape someone?

Seriously; do you people think this through? A girl gets raped, and to "protect" her, god makes a law that makes it so the rapist has someone to rape on the regular- and she has nothing to say about it? Are you fucking fucked in the head?