(January 29, 2015 at 2:47 pm)YGninja Wrote: The law isn't to force the rape victim to marry the rapist. What biblical context can you possibly ground that interpretation on? The law is to ensure the victim is provided for. The rapist cannot leave the woman, but it does not say the woman cannot leave the rapist, it is assumed however that the woman would not want to leave the rapist, because she would not have been able to find another man willing to take on someone elses kid in that culture and period of history.
"The law doesn't force the rape victim to marry her rapist! It just puts her in a position where she has no choice but to stay with him forever out of pragmatic concern, rather than free choice, in a system that god allowed to happen! It's fine!"
If that kind of sophistry is appealing to you, then you're welcome to it. But don't expect the rest of us to play along with your desperate contortions.
Quote:No, i don't think God changes over time, but civilization changes. It would be no good sacrificing lambs to absolve our sins today, as no one has any, whereas during the time of the Mosaic law, the entire culture was based on sheep herding.
So if god doesn't change over time, then what set of morals most closely conforms with his beliefs: the morals of today, or the morals of the old testament?
"YOU take the hard look in the mirror. You are everything that is wrong with this world. The only thing important to you, is you." - ronedee
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Want to see more of my writing? Check out my (safe for work!) site, Unprotected Sects!
