RE: Why does the Bible say there are different races of people...
March 4, 2015 at 7:11 am
(This post was last modified: March 4, 2015 at 7:12 am by Huggy Bear.)
(March 3, 2015 at 6:40 am)Aractus Wrote: When actually there are not?
Example:
Ezra 9:2 "They have taken some of their daughters as wives for themselves and their sons, and have mingled the holy race with the peoples around them. And the leaders and officials have led the way in this unfaithfulness."
You're confused because you're using a jacked up translation.
Stick with the King James Version.
This is the original Hebrew with translation
http://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInter...f/ezr9.pdf
The is how that passage sounds translated directly from the Hebrew
Quote:That they-took-up from·daughters-of·them for·them and·for·sons-of·them and·they-mixed seed-of the·holiness in·peoples-of the·lands and·hand-of the·chiefs and·the·prefects she-was in·the·offense the·this first
this is the King James translation.
Quote:Ezra 9
2 For they have taken of their daughters for themselves, and for their sons: so that the holy seed have mingled themselves with the people of those lands: yea, the hand of the princes and rulers hath been chief in this trespass.
Race is not mentioned, "seed" means offspring.
You appear to be using the NIV version, which has many discrepancies compared to the original text, changes the context of scripture, and in many cases omits whole verses.
