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Why does the Bible say there are different races of people...
#38
RE: Why does the Bible say there are different races of people...
(March 4, 2015 at 12:10 pm)dyresand Wrote: The reason behind this is because if you read up on why and how the KJV was translated into English there was a good enough reason for it not to be translated. Because there is notable mistranslations in the KJV.
That's not entirely true, it did represent a significant improvement over the Geneva Bible. But it was still based off it. They still used the Vulgate. The OT was heavily influenced by both the Vulgate and the LXX. They also used Novum Instrumentum omne (3rd edition)/"Textus Receptus" which represents the incorrect text of the NT as the primary textual basis of the NT and the Complutensian Polyglot Bible as the tertiary source. So they made a number of errors in their assumptions of the importance and validity of certain textual sources that they used.
For Religion & Health see:[/b][/size] Williams & Sternthal. (2007). Spirituality, religion and health: Evidence and research directions. Med. J. Aust., 186(10), S47-S50. -LINK

The WIN/Gallup End of Year Survey 2013 found the US was perceived to be the greatest threat to world peace by a huge margin, with 24% of respondents fearful of the US followed by: 8% for Pakistan, and 6% for China. This was followed by 5% each for: Afghanistan, Iran, Israel, North Korea. -LINK


"That's disgusting. There were clean athletes out there that have had their whole careers ruined by people like Lance Armstrong who just bended thoughts to fit their circumstances. He didn't look up cheating because he wanted to stop, he wanted to justify what he was doing and to keep that continuing on." - Nicole Cooke
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RE: Why does the Bible say there are different races of people... - by Aractus - March 5, 2015 at 12:52 am

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