(March 5, 2015 at 12:52 am)Aractus Wrote:(March 4, 2015 at 12:10 pm)dyresand Wrote: The reason behind this is because if you read up on why and how the KJV was translated into English there was a good enough reason for it not to be translated. Because there is notable mistranslations in the KJV.That's not entirely true, it did represent a significant improvement over the Geneva Bible. But it was still based off it. They still used the Vulgate. The OT was heavily influenced by both the Vulgate and the LXX. They also used Novum Instrumentum omne (3rd edition)/"Textus Receptus" which represents the incorrect text of the NT as the primary textual basis of the NT and the Complutensian Polyglot Bible as the tertiary source. So they made a number of errors in their assumptions of the importance and validity of certain textual sources that they used.
Oh okay thanks i didn't know that
And now i know and knowing is half.....ill stop right there.
Atheism is a non-prophet organization join today.
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