A Real and Significant Biblical Contradiction?

[spockrates]

IOW "enticing is not tempting" as a chaser to "deceit is not deception". Spock.....remember all those times I kept mentioning that there were no contradictions in fiction......lol.

GC knows not only what was in some persons heart thousands of years ago and what he desired, he knows the specifics of what god did about it and why. Who's telling a narrative in third person omniscient now?

Well, I can't speak for GC, but it seems to me that we have not answered the question, "Is all deception telling a lie?" I'm thinking a soccer player who fakes right and kicks to the left deceives the goalie when he scores a goal. He does so without saying a word, and you, or I could not logically accuse him of being a liar. Do you see that not all deception is the same as telling a lie?

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@ Spockrates, I do not believe we have a contradiction here, God would have had to place the lie in the heart of the false prophet to have tempted him, the lie was already there. This prophet wanted to boost his ego and God allowed that very thing to happen, God did this to prove to His people that He is their God and that He knows best.

While it might be true that the imposter first sinned on his own initiative and without any enticing, was this always the case? Or does God say he stepped in and took the initiative to entice the false prophet to continue the behavior?

“‘And if the prophet is enticed to utter a prophecy, I the Lord have enticed that prophet, and I will stretch out my hand against him and destroy him from among my people Israel.'"

(Ezekiel 14:9)

What do the words. "I the LORD have enticed that prophet," mean?

It seems to me, then that we have two options: We must use the King James, or New Revised Standard version, or other version, which uses the word deceived.

If a prophet is deceived and speaks a word, I, the Lord, have deceived that prophet, and I will stretch out my hand against him, and will destroy him from the midst of my people Israel.

(Ezekiel 14:9, New Revised Standard)

Or we use the word enticed, as in the New International Version cited above. If we hold that deceived is the correct translation, we must demonstrate that the impossible lie of Hebrews is not the same as the deception of Ezekiel.

God did this so that, by two unchangeable things in which it is impossible for God to lie, we who have fled to take hold of the hope offered to us may be greatly encouraged.

(Hebrews 6:18)


But if we hold that enticed is the correct translation, we must show that the enticing of Ezekiel is not the same as the tempting of James.

When tempted, no one should say, “God is tempting me.” For God cannot be tempted by evil, nor does he tempt anyone...

(James 1:13)

You see, I still don't see how we can logically say God did not deceive, or entice when God says he did deceive, or entice the false prophet.