@ Spockrates, ok let's look at both situations, you have connected the verse in Ezekiel to two different verses in the NT. Both NT verses relate to God's righteousness and this is what needs to match up to the verses in Ezekiel. I thought we agreed that when the word deceived was used in this verse that God was not lying and I pointed out that God did not tempt the prophet, the prophet already had the lie in his heart, God did not put it there, God did not tempt the prophet to sin. If God had done one He would have done the other, the translations would not matter. Also God would be working against Himself if he had done either after giving Ezekiel the true prophecy. As Christ said that a house divided can not stand, so why would Christ say this in th future if God had done such a thing in the past.
God loves those who believe and those who do not and the same goes for me, you have no choice in this matter. That puts the matter of total free will to rest.
