(October 31, 2013 at 9:18 am)Drich Wrote:(October 29, 2013 at 9:39 am)max-greece Wrote: "That's one of the points I am making here. If the actions of a practicing witch can be justified in her/his death under our laws of self defense, how much more free would those laws be 300 years ago?"
Could you run that one by me again? - I'm really struggling to understand what you are trying to say.
(practising and defence - just for reference)
If the a case for self defense can be made for the death of a witch today. Then how is justification for killing a witch questioned when it was done 300 years ago in every single case?
If you take away the magic, you still have one person or a group of people tormenting and oppressing another.
OK - not in every single case but do you have any feel for the numbers involved? It would appear that the general consensus is that the vast majority of cases involved entirely innocent parties whose crime was in being a woman, maybe too independent for someone's liking, maybe living alone, or ugly or old.
Even if there were a few women using the threat of witchcraft to dominate others the burning of so many women over such a long period of time across Europe is still totally unjustifiable.
Kuusi palaa, ja on viimeinen kerta kun annan vaimoni laittaa jouluvalot!
