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Would Jesus promote punishing the innocent instead of the guilty?
RE: Would Jesus promote punishing the innocent instead of the guilty?
(August 12, 2020 at 11:51 pm)Belacqua Wrote:
(August 12, 2020 at 11:39 pm)Grandizer Wrote: By stating specifically that there were prior examples of figures who died for other people and then were resurrected. I just wonder where are these examples? Or rather what primary sources reveal those to be the case.

I agree nothing is truly unique about Christianity. Views evolve over time, yes, so one could argue that the resurrection of Jesus was derived from certain prior beliefs or whatever, but it doesn't mean they were based on some prior identical accounts of resurrections or that such prior accounts exist.

I think where they overstate the case is when they say that previous stories have figures dying and coming back FOR US.

Yes, this. I'm familiar with the stories of Hercules bringing back Alcestis from Hades, and also Orpheus and his love (well, temporarily at least), etc. If it's just about simply coming back from the dead, then that's easy to demonstrate with examples. But in the accounts I'm familiar, they didn't die "for us" or "for our sins", but for other reasons.

Basically, the issue here isn't just mere overstatement, but sometimes blatant additions of "facts" out of nowhere, such as what we see in the blog post Eleven linked me to.
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RE: Would Jesus promote punishing the innocent instead of the guilty? - by Grandizer - August 13, 2020 at 12:11 am

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