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Would Jesus promote punishing the innocent instead of the guilty?
RE: Would Jesus promote punishing the innocent instead of the guilty?
(August 13, 2020 at 1:12 am)Fake Messiah Wrote:
(August 13, 2020 at 12:45 am)Grandizer Wrote: Might help to provide references to primary sources just so we're clear first on what they actually say, rather than what certain people with an agenda claim they say.

Primary source: sun goes down every day ("into the underground") then comes back again, bringing life with it. Not so hard to check.

The sun rises and sets every day (well, from our perspective that is). All this talk about life and death, however, requires you to provide actual primary sources stating what the ancient people you're referring to believed exactly. Primary source does not mean your interpretation that is cleverly worded to affirm your anti-Christianity biases and to win the argument being had in this case.

I just want to see what those sources say first before assuming anything unnecessarily just for the sake of argument.

(August 13, 2020 at 12:55 am)Belacqua Wrote:
(August 13, 2020 at 12:45 am)Grandizer Wrote: Might help to provide references to primary sources just so we're clear first on what they actually say, rather than what certain people with an agenda claim they say.

I heard an interesting podcast last night with terms that might be relevant.

https://shwep.net/podcast/methodologies-...-of-magic/

This guy studies magic and hermeticism as a historical/sociological field. He doesn't claim to do magic.

He goes into detail about "first order" terms and "second order" terms. First order type are the ones used by the group that's being studied. Second order are the ones used by the researchers. Which sounds pretty simple, but you can see how misunderstandings could easily arise.

For example he claims that in the old days, no group claimed to do magic. Magic is something your enemies or heretics did. So it becomes problematic when a modern researcher uses the term magic -- the mental categories are different. I was thinking that a term like "sin" might have a narrow technical meaning for, say, ancient Hebrews that gets fuzzed up when modern people talk about sin. That's certainly true with the word "cause," as we saw on the other thread.

I'm thinking this may be relevant to the topic here. What modern people refer to as a god or a savior or a messiah, etc., may get blended inappropriately when talking about long-ago cultures. Especially when (as is evident) people are trying to prove something about a religion they dislike.

This may be part of it, true. And I'm ready to consider when this is exactly what's happening (whether on my part or someone else), but it would be good to have something concrete from the ancient minds rather than just hastily go along with what FM says. After all, I'm very familiar with this sun god argument that FM is relying on because I've read works by a somebody called Acharya S who was known for propagating this sun god nonsense that FM is implicitly spouting. There is some attempt to mislead going on here.
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RE: Would Jesus promote punishing the innocent instead of the guilty? - by Grandizer - August 13, 2020 at 1:33 am

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