Leviticus only applies to the Levites

[Thumpalumpacus]

That doesn't explain why the same principle is not in play when other books written to specific subgroups are thereafter generalized to all Christians.

In short, you're engaged in special pleading.

Robbypants understood just fine..

Oh, I understand your point just fine. I simply think it falls short of logical consistency.

[The Grand Nudger]

Witnesses and co-conspirators go missing, and then there's no one left willing to accuse the defendant.

Score 1 for jesus the mob lawyer.

[Minimalist]

Where in your book does it say that the same principle does not apply to other books like Leviticus?

This really is not an answer; you're just saying, "Because."

Moreover, why is the "homosexuality is a sin" portion of Leviticus the only thing in Leviticus modern Christians actually follow?

Because it is convenient for them!

[ThomM]

Moreover, why is the "homosexuality is a sin" portion of Leviticus the only thing in Leviticus modern Christians actually follow?

Because it is convenient for them!

Isn't it funny that the first thing most Xtians do when confronted with claims of problems with the Old Testament - is to say that it no longer applies

And yet - then they quote from it when it suits their fancy!

[Jenny A]

Leviticus is a book of Hebrew law. It takes its name from the Levites (or priests) and some of it does specifically address the Levites. But most of it is directed to the Hebrew people as a whole with instructions given by Moses (supposedly direct from god).

The argument that it only applies to Levites really only makes sense for those chapters addressing priestly duties. Those duties are addressed in Chapters 6-10 which have to do with priests duties at sacrifices and the ordination of priests and some special extra laws for priests in chapter 21. Chapters 1-5, 11-20, and 22-27 applied to everyone.

[Dystopia]

So, I'm used to various excuses as to why Christians don't have to follow the laws of the Old Testament. Some gems include Christ's death nullifying it (cuz reasons), Jesus saying Kosher eating laws no longer apply (what about mixed fabrics), or Jesus coming to fulfill the law (never mind that not one iota is supposed to change). Today, I heard a new excuse:

Leviticus only applies to the Levites.

If that's the case, wouldn't 1st and 2nd Corinthians only apply to Corinth and Galatians only apply to Galilee? I'm trying to get the guy to explain his stance in a way that's not special pleading, but he's currently saying that he's "not following me".

Has anyone else heard this excuse? Was it better explained?

The bible is god's word, unless it propagates inconvenient or illegal actions, we can just pretend they don't exist and use the nice parts. It's all up to interpretation guys don't be mad, all religions are about love, peace and helping mankind, it's all the believer's fault for not knowing how to read properly such a complex text! (Sarcasm!)