RE: Why do the ritors ask for Justice?
September 22, 2016 at 10:07 am
(This post was last modified: September 22, 2016 at 10:10 am by ukatheist.)
Is this about riots following police shootings of black people?
I think the first point to make is, from reading postings on here, is that a large proportion of officers aren't even indicted (apologies if I'm using incorrect terminology here, the UK and US legal systems are a little different) - and therefore the opportunity for justice is limited in the first place.
The second point is that of those that do get indicted, a large proportion of those are eventually acquitted, where in different circumstances they would not (e.g. not an officer or not a black victim).
Yet there does seem to be a number of payouts from the police forces to the families of the victims, which does suggest some admission of responsibility on the part of those forces, so if the civil case is strong enough for forces to agree to settle, why aren't we seeing more indictments (and yes, I do know the standard of proof is different for civil and criminal proceedings, or at least it is in the UK).
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I think the first point to make is, from reading postings on here, is that a large proportion of officers aren't even indicted (apologies if I'm using incorrect terminology here, the UK and US legal systems are a little different) - and therefore the opportunity for justice is limited in the first place.
The second point is that of those that do get indicted, a large proportion of those are eventually acquitted, where in different circumstances they would not (e.g. not an officer or not a black victim).
Yet there does seem to be a number of payouts from the police forces to the families of the victims, which does suggest some admission of responsibility on the part of those forces, so if the civil case is strong enough for forces to agree to settle, why aren't we seeing more indictments (and yes, I do know the standard of proof is different for civil and criminal proceedings, or at least it is in the UK).
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