(May 15, 2017 at 6:33 pm)Catholic_Lady Wrote:(May 15, 2017 at 6:16 pm)Cthulhu Dreaming Wrote: How does a law based on the opinion of one make it any less subjective than if it were the opinion of millions? Does it exist independent of feelings, reason or mind? If so, what function does a law giver provide - communication of transcendent truths? If that is the case, objective morality wouldn't depend on a law giver at all - and if it's not the case, you've just made and argument for subjectivity.
I'm not sure I follow.
Ok, let me approach this from another tack. What does "objective" mean in the context you're using here.
My understanding is that it means "independent of opinion, reason, or mind". I suppose if you assert that your law giver has none of those qualities it works, however, I don't think a mindless automation is what theists have in mind.
Put more plainly, if the law is a product of a law giver's thought process, it is necessarily and tautologically subjective.
