(May 5, 2009 at 4:28 pm)fr0d0 Wrote: It isn't my definition. The NTS fallacy applies to someone that defines something and then abuses the definition to widen it. This doesn't apply.It is very much your definition, as we have shown repeatedly that simple dictionaries (and public thought) disagree with you.
The No True Scotsman fallacy applies in your case. You do not have to state a definition in the first place if the definition is obvious by the person committing the fallacy.
For instance, if you were to say "Catholics are not Christians because they pray to saints" then you would be committing the NTS because you have redefined the word "Christian" to include a clause about not praying to saints. Unless the definition includes such a clause, you are redefining it on the fly, thus creating the fallacy.
Likewise, saying "Murderers cannot be Christians because they break one of the 10 commandments" is a NTS. There is no definition of Christianity that says murderers are excluded (in fact most people say that if you repent your sins and accept Jesus Christ you will go to Heaven, etc).
Now an example of the above which is not a fallacy is this:
"People who do not believe in Jesus Christ are not Christians". The definition of a Christian includes a clause about believing in Jesus Christ, ergo the fallacy is not made.