Interesting. Of the 5 citations made, none are from jebus, 4 are from the various post jebus letters and 1 is from leviticus. What are we supposed to do with that? One can only conclude that jebus is not authoritative and Levitical rules still apply.
Or is this just more theistic cherry-picking?
After all, there is evidence in the bible that jebus was gay himself. The god-bothering crew do only two things when that is pointed out. Either shut up or squeal "that's just your interpretation" ignoring that the whole lot of the rot is exactly their interpretation. Occasionally, I have encountered "that is the wrong interpretation" but that always ends up right back at "my interpretation".
Or is this just more theistic cherry-picking?
After all, there is evidence in the bible that jebus was gay himself. The god-bothering crew do only two things when that is pointed out. Either shut up or squeal "that's just your interpretation" ignoring that the whole lot of the rot is exactly their interpretation. Occasionally, I have encountered "that is the wrong interpretation" but that always ends up right back at "my interpretation".
