RE: "Jesus would rather kill, not marry, gay people" - Franklin Graham
July 13, 2018 at 1:26 pm
(This post was last modified: July 13, 2018 at 1:27 pm by polymath257.)
(July 13, 2018 at 1:05 pm)SteveII Wrote:(July 13, 2018 at 12:22 pm)Chad32 Wrote: I already described the basic objection to homosexuality. That's all theists really have. Gays don't make babies, and their book says it's wrong. There is not compelling objection.
So, does "not compelling objections" mean the beliefs are baseless? unreasoned? homophobic? bigoted? No. That's what your side of this issue does: mischaracterize and then bash the straw man with over-the-top labels. They somehow feel that if they understand the other side's position, then they have to admit something that they don't want to admit--namely that Christians beliefs are not inherently baseless, unreasonable, homophobic or bigoted.
Also, the opinion of Christians =/= Christian beliefs derived from systematic theology and the development of sound doctrine.
Yes, actually, it does mean that it is unreasoned and bigoted. If your religion says that it is wrong for two men to love each other and be sexual or two women to love each other and be sexual, then it is your religion that is wrong. it really is that simple.
(July 13, 2018 at 1:25 pm)SteveII Wrote:(July 13, 2018 at 12:51 pm)Jörmungandr Wrote: Steve, could you provide me with the verses where God ordained that marriage was only between a man and a woman. Thanks in advance.
Genesis 2:20-24 ESV
The man gave names to all livestock and to the birds of the heavens and to every beast of the field. But for Adam there was not found a helper fit for him. So the Lord God caused a deep sleep to fall upon the man, and while he slept took one of his ribs and closed up its place with flesh. And the rib that the Lord God had taken from the man he made into a woman and brought her to the man. Then the man said, “This at last is bone of my bones and flesh of my flesh; she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man.” Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother and hold fast to his wife, and they shall become one flesh.
Mark 10:2-9
And Pharisees came up and in order to test him asked, “Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife?” 3 He answered them, “What did Moses command you?” 4 They said, “Moses allowed a man to write a certificate of divorce and to send her away.” 5 And Jesus said to them, “Because of your hardness of heart he wrote you this commandment. 6 But from the beginning of creation, ‘God made them male and female.’ 7 ‘Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and hold fast to his wife,[a] 8 and the two shall become one flesh.’ So they are no longer two but one flesh. 9 What therefore God has joined together, let not man separate.”
The "no ambiguity" comes from the 1000 other verses that refer to marriage, the marriage bond/covenant, the Israelite laws governing marriage, the complimentary nature of marriage, etc. There is no indication anywhere that God's definition of marriage was less than exactly prescribed between a man and a woman.
More reading...https://www.frc.org/brochure/the-bibles-teaching-on-marriage-and-family
First, I agree that the Bible is quite explicit in its denigration of homosexuality. And that is one of the many, many *moral* reasons to reject the Bible.
