Just explain to me how they knew to set it up as the same day as the darkness. B/c you guys are going with a theory that isn't mainstream except in England, that the whole thing is made up, let's say that he was at least killed, how then did they coincide it with the prophecies in the OT? If I predict a celestial event and not in the age of reason or science, and it happens, not something that common, that doesn't strike you as proof? They said 10 times in the OT that the day would be darkness on his crucifixion, well NASA said in AD 33 there was an event, explain it
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Current time: May 25, 2024, 9:55 pm
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Atheist who is having a crisis of faith
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