RE: Does the positive side of tribalism/racism outshine the negative side?
August 12, 2020 at 10:12 am
(This post was last modified: August 12, 2020 at 10:16 am by The Grand Nudger.)
Slavery today, different in it's characteristics from slavery then (when it is), is still precisely equivalent with respect to it's moral and practical negotiations.
It's an instrumental good - we do it because it can do things for us, it's good-for.....solving labor problems. I don't think that I can get onboard with the notion that any slaveholder has ever been generous, and I'll note that in any instance where you start to run out of slaves..because too many die, you just go get more. They're a renewable resource. Slavers aren't giving slaves anything that's not the purpose of that relationship, that's not how that works. Slavers take things from slaves.
Slavery is not now nor has it ever been welfare. It's the ownership of people as property. A moral evil, alleged to be an instrumental good. There's no need to spin around with these equivocations because they aren't necessary or even useful to the question you asked, or any argument for either side that could be proposed. You arent asking whether or not welfare, as an instrumental good, is worth whatever moral badness it might entail.
You're wondering about slavery - and on that count, you have to make the case (or destroy the case) that the instrumental good of slavery outweighs the moral bad..of slavery - just as a christian would have to do the same regarding the instrumental good of the salvific plan, against the moral evil of the same.
It's an instrumental good - we do it because it can do things for us, it's good-for.....solving labor problems. I don't think that I can get onboard with the notion that any slaveholder has ever been generous, and I'll note that in any instance where you start to run out of slaves..because too many die, you just go get more. They're a renewable resource. Slavers aren't giving slaves anything that's not the purpose of that relationship, that's not how that works. Slavers take things from slaves.
Slavery is not now nor has it ever been welfare. It's the ownership of people as property. A moral evil, alleged to be an instrumental good. There's no need to spin around with these equivocations because they aren't necessary or even useful to the question you asked, or any argument for either side that could be proposed. You arent asking whether or not welfare, as an instrumental good, is worth whatever moral badness it might entail.
You're wondering about slavery - and on that count, you have to make the case (or destroy the case) that the instrumental good of slavery outweighs the moral bad..of slavery - just as a christian would have to do the same regarding the instrumental good of the salvific plan, against the moral evil of the same.
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