(October 28, 2020 at 5:00 am)Grandizer Wrote:(October 27, 2020 at 9:21 pm)Fake Messiah Wrote: But why would there have to be a Q? Like I said earlier if we take that Mark wrote his gospel first and then Matthew copied him adding a few new stuff like let's say Sermon on the mount with Jesus saying "Blessed are the meek for they shall inherit the earth" why would that necessarily need to be from the Q and not from Psalm 37:11 that goes "But the meek will inherit the land and enjoy peace and prosperity."?
Or why couldn't he put in stuff from other books?
I haven't checked the previous responses here, so apologies if there's a context I'm missing. Q is a thing (according to many scholars) because of the commonalities between Matthew and Luke that are not found in Mark.
I've always found it helpful to think of Q as the variety of sources - both oral and textual - which provided a rough framework for the Synoptics. Since we know that (as TGN said) none of the Gospels have the claimed authorship and none of them have a single author, it's reasonable to suppose that that the compilers of the Gospels were - to a significant extent - drawing on earlier source material.
In a way, it's a lot like Monmouth's Historia - written as fact, but based on folklore and earlier ballads.
Boru
‘I can’t be having with this.’ - Esmeralda Weatherwax
