RE: Is Christianity Inherently Supportive Of Slavery And Misogyny?
July 28, 2021 at 1:54 pm
(This post was last modified: July 28, 2021 at 1:55 pm by Angrboda.)
(July 28, 2021 at 1:28 pm)Huggy Bear Wrote:(July 28, 2021 at 1:15 pm)Angrboda Wrote: It wasn't baseless. You provided a basis. If being a slave was a nothing burger, then the story you cite doesn't make sense. Additionally, there is plenty of extra-biblical evidence about slavery in ANE, as well as Jesus' comments.
But thanks for showing what a towering intellect you are once again.
Your assumptions are baseless, you conflate indentured servitude with slavery, where in the King James English, the word SLAVE only appears twice the bible, once in the old testament and once in the new testament, the word SERVANT is used IN ALL OTHER INSTANCES, which shows a clear distinction between the word servant and slave.
Hows is it that your apparently prodigious brain can't understand that?
I can understand that, as well as the possibility that the distinction you are arguing is nonsense or of limited applicability. Ultimately that doesn't matter. As Nudger has pointed out, both are things a moral god would prohibit if my argument holds, which it does. Try arguing the point instead of cheap shots and semantic quibbles. You've now conceded that even if indentured servitude was less problematic than slavery, it's still a problem.
As to what word is used in the King James version of the bible, that matters little as the bible wasn't written in the king's English. I admit to being ignorant here, a limitation that even a prodigious brain can't overcome on the nonce. What words were used in the original, what practices did they indicate, and were they uniform or are you trying to sneak in exceptions as a general rule? We've already seen you try to reason from a limited set of particulars to a universal or general rule in an invalid manner, what's to say that you aren't doing so now?
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