(July 29, 2021 at 10:07 am)tackattack Wrote: OK so since I asked, I've seen a verse that state not to have Israelite slaves. Are there any prescriptive verses that say to go get some non-Israelite slaves, or do they all describe behaviors towards slaves? If you can't produce any then the Bible does not prescribe or endorse slavery. I'm not the one splitting hairs. I haven't even focused on the semantic arguments of servant vs slave, while the entirety of this board is splitting hairs on what to endorse means. If the argument and definition of endorse were the same then I would agree that the Bible is descriptive, and therefore implicitly supports, certain treatment of slaves and doesn't say no to all types of slavery. But you can't even make that case by your own quotation of scriptures, as slavery is prescriptively limited against certain people.
As a Christian, IMO, I believe the Bible does teach slavery to one God, and that all men have masters. I doubt our definitions of slavery would match in this case though. Looks like we're not making any headway on this topic, anyone want to prod forward on misogyny?
How official do you need the endorsement to be? Maybe the words, "Go enslave people," are nowhere to be found in the Bible, but an endorsement can be inferred. No Israelite slaves? "Open season on all non-Israelites" is what I hear.
Explicitly excluding Israelites is the key here. To me, that really makes it count as an endorsement. You might have a better argument if that weren't in there.
