You don't know shit about any facts but Khirbet Qeiyafa is a wet dream. First of all, side by side translations of it show wildly different meanings. In addition the noted American scholar , Chris Rollston has dismissed the idea of it being Hebrew.
Secondly, if it were in Hebrew so what?. It has nothing to do with any biblical text which, in case you forgot, was the original question posed.
The whining opinions of aged biblical apologists that there must have been a Hebrew version before the Greek are based on wishes. Where is the evidence for THOSE writings?
Do you understand what you are looking for now?
Secondly, if it were in Hebrew so what?. It has nothing to do with any biblical text which, in case you forgot, was the original question posed.
The whining opinions of aged biblical apologists that there must have been a Hebrew version before the Greek are based on wishes. Where is the evidence for THOSE writings?
Do you understand what you are looking for now?
