Where Did the Trinity Teaching Come From?

[Alter2Ego]

ALTER2EGO -to- EVERYONE:
It is true Jesus is the WORD in that he serves as Jehovah's chief spokesman. Likewise, Jesus is a god, since "god" is simply a title that describes someone who is powerful. But he is not Almighty God Jehovah. The apostle Paul made it clear that the title "god" can apply to all sorts of individuals, as noted below:

"For even though there are those who are called 'gods,' whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are MANY 'gods' and MANY 'lords,'..."
(1 Corinthians 8:5)

You should be a little more careful in quoting verses, what I mean you should read the verses around the ones you quote, you could find some answers to your own questions.

ALTER2EGO -to- GODSCHILD:
I appreciate your respectful approach.

I quoted the scripture at 1 Corinthians 8:5 with full knowledge of what's written in verses 4 and 6. What point are you making by presenting the other two verses?

1st Corinthians 8:4 Therefore concerning the eating of things sacrificed to idols, we know that there is no such thing as an idol in the world, and there is no God but one.
5) For even if there are so-called gods whether in heaven or on earth, as indeed there are many gods and many lords,
6) yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom are all things, and we exist for Him; and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him.
Though you pulled this out of the middle of a chapter on causing other Christians to stumble, it works, it works to show that the Father and Son are one and that we exist for and through God. So now we have scripture telling us that two of the three are one God.

ALTER2EGO -to- GODSCHILD:
I'm waiting for you to explain where those verses say anything about Jehovah the Father and Jesus Christ the son being one and the same. Verse 6 clearly makes a distinction between the two of them, as follows.

1. "yet for us there is but one God, the Father, from whom are all things, and we exist for Him;"

2. "and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him."

You do understand why the word "and" is used after the semi-colon in verse 6; don't you? The word "and" is used when separating independent clauses. A mere comma could have been used to separate the two statements listed above. But the translator went further by using a semi-colon, which is the strongest indication of an independent clause. To put it simply, statement #1 ("yet for us there is but one God, the Father") is completely independent of what's written in sentence #2 ("and one Lord, Jesus Christ"). The apostle Paul is talking about to separate and distinct individuals.