(May 23, 2012 at 2:24 pm)Alter2Ego Wrote: You do understand why the word "and" is used after the semi-colon in verse 6; don't you? The word "and" is used when separating independent clauses. A mere comma could have been used to separate the two statements listed above. But the translator went further by using a semi-colon, which is the strongest indication of an independent clause. To put it simply, statement #1 ("yet for us there is but one God, the Father") is completely independent of what's written in sentence #2 ("and one Lord, Jesus Christ"). The apostle Paul is talking about to separate and distinct individuals.[/size]
But can I not have fish AND chips and it be the SAME meal?
You can fix ignorance, you can't fix stupid.
Tinkety Tonk and down with the Nazis.
