Question for both Christians and Muslims.

[Ben Davis]

In case of Christianity:

Is that disbelievers are to be damned for disbelieving or do disbelievers disbelief because they are damned?

In case of Islam:

Are disbelievers unjust for disbelieving or do disbelievers disbelieve because they are unjust?

Isn't it a case of 'both'? That is to say that the religions are covering their bases.

And doesn't it depend on the person? That is to say it depends on one's 'propensity for belief':

1. Some people, when they reach their age of reason, are incapable of belief; they're simply not wired that way (I have a friend who fits this category). Those people are equivalent to 'disbelieving because they're damned/unjust'; their inherent nature means they disbelieve and in the abrahamic paradigms, those people are irretrievably 'damned/unjust'.

2. Some people, when they reach their age of reason, are still capable of belief but learn not to believe; their wiring permits the possibility of continued belief but their education/knowledge leads them to disbelieve (I fit this category). Those people are equivalent to 'damned/unjust because they disbelieve'; their learned behaviour means they disbelieve and in the abrahamic paradigms, those people have been tempted into sin thus 'damned/unjust' - salvagable but still 'damned/unjust'.