(September 9, 2009 at 5:39 pm)Saerules Wrote: If that doesn't answer your question, then i am afraid you are dodging my answer. In any universe in which 1 ≠ 1: the universe is either one mass, or it is a void. Have i not proven that our universe is applicable to 1=1, and every universe that could possibly precede ours is also the same? That i have proven with philosophy.
No I am not question dodging ... I do not accept that 1 = 1 is a philosophical issue in the sense you are saying and besides it is, as I said earlier, it is an assumption demonstrated to be true by science and math.
Please do not accuse me of question dodging because I do not see the world form the same perspective as you!
Kyu
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Where those who are hacked off with the stupidity of irrational belief can vent their feelings!
Come over to the dark side, we have cookies!
Kyuuketsuki, AngryAtheism Owner & Administrator