Moses Lied! Contradiction Alert!!!

[spockrates]

Catfish:

That one went over my head, but then, I'm not the sharpest tack in the Atheist Forums box! Please explain the contradiction to me.

Moses wrote a law that Yeshua contradicted. So, Moses' law was not "God's law"...

If Moses spoke for God, would not all of his laws coincide with God's?

---

John 7:22-24
King James Version (KJV)

22 Moses therefore gave unto you circumcision; (not because it is of Moses, but of the fathers; ) and ye on the sabbath day circumcise a man.
23 If a man on the sabbath day receive circumcision, that the law of Moses should not be broken; are ye angry at me, because I have made a man every whit whole on the sabbath day?
24 Judge not according to the appearance, but judge righteous judgment.

I believe Yeshua was making the point that the Jewish religious authorities were the ones misrepresenting (and so contradicting) the Law of Moses. But what do you think? Do you think he was contradicting their misrepresentation of that law, or am I mistaken?

---

Scriptural proof that Moses lied:

Matthew 19:3-9
King James Version (KJV)

3 The Pharisees also came unto him, tempting him, and saying unto him, Is it lawful for a man to put away his wife for every cause?
4 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,
5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?
6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.
7 They say unto him, Why did Moses then command to give a writing of divorcement, and to put her away?
8 He saith unto them, Moses because of the hardness of your hearts suffered you to put away your wives: but from the beginning it was not so.
9 And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

Yeshua contradicts Moses' law concerning divorce with these words.

Cherrypickers unite!

Since I don't believe Jesus (if he existed) actually said these words, rather the author of the Gospel of Matthew was interpreting the torah in a certain way. Instead of a straight reading of the torah and stating that divorce is allowable under any circumstances, so long the woman has been given a certificate. The author of Matthew is interpreting the torah in that divorce is not allowed, unless the woman has committed adultery.

I agree that some ancient rabbis believed adultery should be the only grounds for divorce. From what I understand, not all Jewish rabbis of Jesus' day were in agreement on this. One rabbi went so far as to say that a wife who cooks badly is a grounds for divorcing her! It seems the Jewish authorities questioning Jesus were trying to get him to choose sides by asking if he agreed a woman should "be divorced for any reason."