Prayer?

[Drich]

Ignorance of what?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Argument_from_ignorance

In short an arguement from ignorance asserts that a statement is true unless proven false.

Your arguement from ignorance:

As it is still being brought up, obviously you haven't defeated the argument to anyone's satisfaction

You are saying that the arguement you keep bring up is valid because I have not defeated it.

Plans? The very concept of a plan demands some level of predisposition to all variables if it is carried out perfectly (which we expect from an allegedly perfect being). So, if every action I take is according to The Plan, I should never be judged for anything I do, because either I was programmed by God to do these things directly, or programmed to operate within a certain range of behaviors.

What if the plan is to provide a realm in which an indivisual's choice is prmitted?

What I'm saying is that if people really do suffer in Hell, there can only be two reasons why. One, God specifically selected certain people to end up there, which can only be possible if he's holding humanity to a standard of morality far beyond his meager capacity to match, let alone exceed, or two: he is angry because some people act against his wishes, which can only be possible if he half-assed his Plan.

Or three He is hold people to the choices they make in this life. If they choose eternal seperation from God then He simply holds them to it.

It is impossible to reconcile truly free will with the idea of God's Plan.

again define "God's plan and free will."

If there is a God and he really has all his shit figured out ahead of time, what we call 'free will' is only being able to choose from a very narrow set of variables when they are offered to us. Which is, of course, the way we understand free will to work (as it is obvious we cannot exercise the vast majority of the things we mentally conceive).

As I suspected you are working with a philosphy based in the greek philosphy of free will. I have identified this as 'Complete freedom of Choice.' Because one is free to choose whatever he wants without fear or thought given to consenquence. Know the bible does not say we have been given this freedom of Choice.
Freewill as the bible describes it is the ablity to be outside the expressed will of God. In otherwords it is the ablity to sin, and to find redemption for said sin.

You've dismissed the argument simply, therefore, your smoking gun retort should be able to be restated just as simply, if you actually have one. Of course, you do not, but I'd prefer you either humor my ignorance or just ignore it.

Again, your 'ignorance' is not limited to you. It's like you guys were punched off of an assembly line of thought, or how to think because the arguement is the same no matter which one of you uses it.
You start by redefining 'free will' and then accuse God of not fitting the defination you provide. Here is a novel idea. If you are going to use the bible to define God then also use it to define the principle in which you are holding Him against.