God does not follow the first principle of morality. Why not?

[Drich]

Again it does not work because The God of the bible does not offer all people the omnibenevolence epiricus' gods appearently did.

So you admit Yahweh is capable of evil and, in fact, employs it. Understood.

Is Omnipotence the only omni aspect of god being repersented in the supposed paradox?

immediately before the other omni aspects are shown...

It's funny how the bible does not use the word you used

It's funny how the exact word used in the bible is at the whim of the translator. Did you miss the 'Lexicon Switcheroo' thread?

and I think it to be odd you do not define the word.

Ever heard of a dictionary?

This is a streach even for a sunday schooler. Before I proceed let me see you say you believe Omniscients to be limited to God having the ablity to simply 'see all things.' That for you the doctrine of Omniscients does not include any other 'all knowing aspects.'

So...god doesn't know everything? Are you saying that there are things god does not know?

And againd I see you left out omni benevolence even though your whole arguement depends on it.. Wonder why that is.

"Then he is malevolent"

It is a shame to see you default to pointless and meaningless jabs, rather than actually putting in an effort to understand. Perhaps you do understand and know you can not honestly defend your position anymore. Eitherway it is disappointing to see you lower the bar on your work.

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Drich never addressed the important part of my post.

Why do you not condone rape, slavery, torture, murder and genocide, since these are all acts God is guilty of doing directly or commanding others to do in his name, and if God is good, any act he perpetrates must be good?

Or, do you, in fact, condone these activities?

I'd like a response.

Gladly.
The acts you have mentioned in of themselves have absolutly no intrinsic 'moral' value. They are bad when/because God says they are bad. As it is now these things are 'bad.'

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Woops.

Psalms 18:30: "As for God, his way is perfect: the word of the Lord is tried: he is a buckler to all those that trust in him,"

Ps.19:7: "The law of the Lord is good, converting the soul: the testimony of the Lord is sure, making wise the simple."

Let me understand this. You believe these verses declare universal omni benevolence for everyone on the planet?

Ah, no, Not even close.. God's love if reserved for God's people. Not all people can consider themselves God's people.

The Holy, Catholic, Apostolic and Roman Church believes and acknowledges that there is one true and living God, Creator and Lord of Heaven and earth, almighty, eternal, immeasurable, incomprehensible, infinite in will, understanding and every perfection. Since He is one, singular, completely simple and unchangeable spiritual substance, He must be declared to be in reality and in essence, distinct from the world, supremely happy in Himself and from Himself, and inexpressibly loftier than anything besides Himself which either exists or can be imagined.

And this means God is omni benevolent how?