RE: Why did God do Satan’s bidding?
December 7, 2012 at 3:47 pm
(December 7, 2012 at 2:46 pm)Rhythm Wrote: The best you have is an invocation of the naturalistic fallacy
I don't see how that applies - can you explain further?
Quote:followed by an appeal to hypocrisy? ![Clap Clap](https://atheistforums.org/images/smilies/clap.gif)
Yes - people tend to look down on hypocritical positions, at least in others.
Quote:An explanation for how your god got his rights
Already explained - via creation. I don't really know how to explain why creation confers rights. Most cultures seem to take that as self-evident. If I create something, I can generally do as I please with it, but you can't do anything with it without my permission.
Quote:(why parent don't have them)
Parents did not create their own bodies, and so cannot claim full creation of their children. That's why we have the separate word procreate for the situation. That said, most societies give greater rights over children to the children's parents than to anyone else.
Quote:- and even more strangely, why gods rights abrogate our own completely is still conspicuously absent.
It hasn't been established that we have any rights for God to abrogate.